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Unread 10-17-2005, 09:20 PM   #1
Ron Smith
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I have often thought of checking to determine , if whereby the, governing or law making body, of a city, state, or country, deprives a law abiding citizen of their means of defending themselves. And that citizen falls victim of a crime in which, if they would have had the means to defend themselves, could have successfully done so. Why couldn't the governing body that deprived them of that means be held legally responsible?

Has anyone else ever heard or read of this. I'm sure that it's been tried. Cause I sure as heck ain't no great legal mind!

RS

As far as a Luger story goes. If he is such a worldly and studied film maker. He should read Steinbeck's "Of Mice and Men".
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