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Unread 06-14-2016, 03:57 PM   #1
rhuff
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I own a 1944 Colt 1911A1 that is a "lend-lease" gun to England. It has a number of British proof marks on it, including frame, barrel, etc. In this case, it would only be correct if it has these proof marks. It does not have any import markings, as I purchased it before they were required.
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Unread 06-14-2016, 04:43 PM   #2
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rhuff View Post
I own a 1944 Colt 1911A1 that is a "lend-lease" gun to England. It has a number of British proof marks on it, including frame, barrel, etc. In this case, it would only be correct if it has these proof marks. It does not have any import markings, as I purchased it before they were required.
Now that, in my opinion, is a horse of a different color. That might add value given the historical significance.
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Unread 06-14-2016, 05:03 PM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by rhuff View Post
I own a 1944 Colt 1911A1 that is a "lend-lease" gun to England. It has a number of British proof marks on it, including frame, barrel, etc. In this case, it would only be correct if it has these proof marks. It does not have any import markings, as I purchased it before they were required.
Your Colt is absolutely correct historically. No way it's value would be affected. And considering what's been happening to handguns in England, it's value will surely increase.
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